Integrating Inverse Tan

We're going to do some integration by parts!

The thing to realize is that you can integrate anything by parts. \(tan^{-1}(x)\) does indeed exist on its own. However, it is the same thing as \(tan^{-1}(x) \times 1\). So we'll integrate that expression by parts.

\(tan^{-1}(x) \times 1\)

The integral of 1 with respect to \(x\) is just \(x\).

\(tan^{-1}(x) \times \int (1)dx - \int (\frac{d}{dx}tan^{-1}(x) \times \int (1)dx) dx\)

\(tan^{-1}(x) \times x - \int (\frac{1}{1+x^2} \times x)dx\)

\(xtan^{-1}(x) - \int (\frac{x}{1+x^2})dx \)

From here, there are two routes you can go down. You could make a substitution or use the \(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\) property.

The \(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\) property is seared into my mind because of this phrase I learned from my teacher:

the aforementioned phrase in Urdu

The grammar is a bit iffy. It's in Urdu but it roughly translates to "Check if the derivative of the thing below is available on the top OR can be made available on the top".

We'll do a substitution first.

Substitution

Let \(u=1+x^2\)

\(du=2x\ dx\)

\(dx=\frac{du}{2x}\)

Now that we have \(u\) and \(dx\), let's plug these values in.

\(xtan^{-1}(x) - \int (\frac{x}{u} \times \frac{du}{2x})\)

If we look at \(\frac{x}{u} \times \frac{du}{2x}\), we can simplify this to \(\frac{x}{2ux}du\). We will proceed to DESTROY and ANNIHILATE the \(x\) in this fraction.

\(xtan^{-1}(x) - \int (\frac{1}{2u} ) du\)

\(xtan^{-1}(x) - \frac{1}{2} \int (\frac{1}{u}) du\)

Using the \(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\) property, we know that \(\frac{1}{u}du\) will integrate to \(ln(u)\). Hence:

\(xtan^{-1}(x) - \frac{1}{2} [ln(u)]\)

And since \(u=1+x^2\),

\(xtan^{-1}(x) - \frac{1}{2}ln(1+x^2)\)

That's it!

Using \(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\)

This way is a fair bit shorter. Here's where we are:

\(xtan^{-1}(x) - \int (\frac{x}{1+x^2})dx \)

Focus on \(\frac{x}{1+x^2}\).

We know that the derivative of \(1+x^2\) is \(2x\). We can morph this value into the numerator if we multiply it by \(\frac{1}{2}\). Then, we have an example of \(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\).

So, if we integrate \(\frac{x}{1+x^2}\), we end up with \(ln(1+x^2)\). If we plug that into the rest of our expression, we end up with \(xtan^{-1}(x) - \frac{1}{2}ln(1+x^2)\). That was a lot faster!

Think of it like \(\frac{1}{\frac{1}{2}} \times \frac{f'(x)}{2f(x)}\). This would simplify to \(2 \times \frac{f'(x)}{2f(x)}\) which becomes our coveted \(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\).

This article was written on 30/01/2023. If you have any thoughts, feel free to send me an email with them. Have a nice day!